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4 way air hose
http://www.lostjeeps.com/forum/phpBB3/viewtopic.php?f=59&t=2002
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Author:  Tokyojoe [ Sun Oct 09, 2005 1:10 pm ]
Post subject: 

This connector looks like a great piece to use.

3 to 1. Run the two hoses, connect the gauge and then the valve on the single end.

http://www.northerntool.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/ProductDisplay?storeId=6970&productId=383260&R=383260


or this 5 to 1 air manifold

You could run a hose to each tire from this piece and have a spot for the gauge.

http://www.northerntool.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/ProductDisplay?storeId=6970&productId=13795&R=13795

Author:  Tokyojoe [ Mon Oct 10, 2005 12:50 pm ]
Post subject: 

Clint,

How do you hook up your regulator to the shut off valve? You have a male-end coupler on the valve. Did you cut the end off the regulator's hose and add a coupler/quick disconnect to it? Or do you just use a hose from a tank?

Author:  Signcutter21 [ Mon Oct 10, 2005 4:54 pm ]
Post subject: 

Dang Clint, finally saw that you posted this. Yeah I know i'm not around that much. Had my two way hose sitting around waiting to be finished for close to a year now, finally saw how you had the gauge and finished up this week. Works great, now to add an extendion hose so i can leave the air tank in the back and not unhook it, but then again, i'm sure somebody else will want to borrow some air...which isn't a problem, borrowed a few in my day. thanks for sharing this great fab.

later, mike

Author:  Myke [ Thu Nov 24, 2005 4:19 pm ]
Post subject:  Re: Hope this helps

skrracing wrote:
Huh Yea...lets dont let this get out of control. I will put together a parts list. But just to be sure the main purpose wasa to air down fast and have the same pressure.

And to prove it works.

A = pi * r^2 *4 (1 airhose * 4 chucks) First of all, ABF = AEC by SAS. This is because, AE = AB, AF = AC, and

BAF = BAC + CAF = CAB + BAE = CAE.
ABF has base AF and the altitude from B equal to AC. Its area therefore equals half that of square on the side AC. On the other hand, AEC has AE and the altitude from C equal to AM, where M is the point of intersection of AB with the line CL parallel to AE. Thus the area of AEC equals half that of the rectangle AELM. Which says that the area AC2 of the square on side AC equals the area of the rectangle AELM.

Similarly, the are BC2 of the square on side BC equals that of rectangle BMLD. Finally, the two rectangles AELM and BMLD make up the square on the hypotenuse AB.

The square has a square hole with the side (a-b). Summing up its area (a-b)2 and 2ab, the area of the four triangles (4·ab/2), we get

c2 = (a-b)2+2ab
= a2-2ab+b2+2ab
= a2+b2

This proof is ascribed to Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519) [Eves]. Quadrilaterals ABHI, JHBC, ADGC, and EDGF are all equal. (This follows from the observation that the angle ABH is 45o. This is so because ABC is right-angled, thus center O of the square ACJI lies on the circle circumscribing triangle ABC. Obviously, angle ABO is 45o.) Now, area(ABHI)+area(JHBC)=area(ADGC)+area(EDGF). Each sum contains two areas of triangles equal to ABC (IJH or BEF) removing which one obtains the Pythagorean Theorem.

The math is here guys so no need to argue the math facts.

So Yea this proves it for sure...it is way too much faster. later...Clint



OMG how could miss this

you forgot to judge the acceleration of the O particles against mass.

So Energy = Mass * The acceleration of light which in turn is E=MC2

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